Let's say for argument that Audyssey found your F3 at 60 and you raised it to 100.
Did Audyssey do no correction at 80?
The calibration information is now there at your disposal. If you select 100hz, and as you might say for argument's sake, let's go with a brick-wall xover. Then you've effectively decided not to use it, plain and simple.
Even without the brick wall, whatever the roll off, the calibration is still there, well at least to down to the "measured" F3.
[strike]If "no", that seems to be a signifigant oversight.[/strike]
If "yes" then is calibrated for the mains and you are now using the sub which it is not calibrated for.
Is there some step I'm missing?
Your question is hurting my head. HUH. stepping away for 5 minutes.
Ok, I'm back. Ok, where to begin. It's calibrating for the particular speaker at the particular position with a particular mic position.
The sub of course has its own particulars. When you speak of bass mgmt, you have to remember that it's more complex in that it's playing both rerouted bass as well as LFE. HOWEVER, it's
still a moot point. Because the calibration is for the particular speaker (ahem sub) at the particular position with the particular mic position.
Wherever the source material may have been derived from is immaterial to the speaker's calibration.
Why do I have this sinking feeling there is something lost in translation?
Hmm. previewing post. Ok, I think I'm making sense right now? Ok, I have the perfect question for you, or so I hope:
How could a single stereo speaker/calibration possibly know it's NOT supposed to calibrate for center speaker material when it's working as a phantom stereo setup?
(Right? The source origin is immaterial to the calibration of the speaker . . . ?)