Bass output of a speaker is/isn't omnidirectional based on the size of the room in which the speaker resides?????
I'm not totally sure about what you're asking, but I'll try....
Human hearing covers roughly 20 hz to 20khz. To calculate wavelength, you take the speed of sound (at sea level is 1131 fps) and divide the frequency in to it.
20 hz = 56.5 feet
20,000 hz = 0.678 inches
(in metric it's delightfully easy - 17 meters down to 17 millimeters)
As frequency increases, any loudspeaker gains forward bias - the Directivity Index that I have referenced before.
Because of the inability to fully propagate those large wavelengths in most domestic rooms, they induce the familiar standing waves and room modes. This results in high and low pressure regions within the room. Subwoofers and loudspeakers act as pressure sources, and must be given the placement and/or quantity necessary in order to get ALL of the bass at ALL of the seats - regardless of stated roll offs or marketing nonsense...
This is why even Gene uses subwoofers in his room, despite having front speakers with a total of 6 - 10" woofers.
Due to the omni directional nature of those lower bass frequencies, simply taking measurements at the listening positions is necessary, but insufficient information with which to 'treat' or 'EQ' a room, which I know you've heard me argue before. But here I am explaining it again