If the speakers were a 2 way design, and one had two of of the same drivers, then the driver exucrsion would be the same at a given input signal as a single driver. I think what you are saying is that you may not have to have the same level of input with the 2 driver the same configuration as opposed to a single driver configuration. If thats what you are saying, I don't if the sensitivity of a driver is linear or not thus reducing the excursion by half. In a 2.5 design such as my PSBT45, the lower woofer handles the lower half the bass only while the top woofer handles the remaining bass and midrange. I guess the top woofer's excursion would be lowered as the bass is not as prominent if that makes sense
i think that's what I mean, BUT ...
I've heard 2 and 1/2 way speakers work like so:
one woofer produces BOTH mid and bass ... the other woofer produces only the bass below some frequency. so the mid/bass driver is still doing lots of work (if not all).
like you said, assuming the dual woofer speaker is a 2 way design, whether the sensitivity is linear or not linear, they would still 'share the load' right? (even if they're not equal)
from my first post, Monitor Audio mentions ' the bottom woofer produces the "low bass" and the upper woofer produces the "mid bass" ' ... that would lead me to believe it was a 3 way, right?
I asked the local salesman re: the above quoted sentence, he said that the signal both woofers received was the same (2 way), BUT since one was at the bottom and the other is at the top, they "sound" like they were producing different signals. I flat out laughed without showing hesitation, but now I got you guys ... tell me he's wrong. is he wrong?
I also emailed MA with some of these questions, but I would like some discussion here as well.