I'm a little confused by some of the reviews that I see when SPL vs. Freq. charts are published.
For example let's look at the SPL vs. Freq. Chart here:
SPL vs. Freq chart
From reading the graph it looks like I see the following:
1. From 70Hz to 20KHz I see several readings down to 80 ish db.
2. From 70Hz to 20KHz I see a couple of peaks around 90 ish dB.
3. From 70Hz to 60Hz there is a steep drop-off in SPL db.
From a newb viewpoint it looks like the speakers are flat within +/- 5db from 70Hz to 20KHz based on the measurements takein
in that specific environment from that specific distance.
However the article, which I'm of course assuming is correct, says:
"
I did a quick and dirty in room response measurement of the TK-5Cs at ½ meter. What I found was that the -3dB point as confirmed by the frequency response and saddle point on the impedance graph is around 60Hz just as the manufacturer claims. They maintain a linear response of +-3dB throughout the entire audio range but do tend to favor the lower midrange in the 1kHz to 3kHz region just like my listening tests confirmed."
Based on the above it seems like the reviewer is saying that the units are flat +/- 3dB from 60Hz to 20KHz. When checking the manufacturer's web site they say:
Frequency Response: 60Hz-20kHz (±3dB)
My problem is that I don't see, based on the chart, how that conclusion is arrived at. What am I missing or not taking into consideration? Is the reviewer saying that +/- 5dB from 70Hz to 20KHz in his [imperfect] room is close enough to +/- 3dB from 60Hz to 20KHz [perfect conditions] for government work?? Is the reviewer throwing out some of the higher peaks in the mid range????
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Edit: I did see a chart on the manufacturer's site that [to me] does look flat +/- 3dB from 60Hz to 20KHz so I guess that I can read the chart. Now my question is why did the reviewer says that the review unit seemed to meet specs? .... Was it close enough for his imperfect room to assume that it was otherwise fine????