I read my own post just now to see how it was not clear to you. I did find one typo in my 2nd sentence "...effects on the heavy current etc.............." It should have been effects “of”, not “on”. To me this does not explain why you responded the way you did.
Now, let me be clear, I did not believe in the benefit of passive biamp because I know any resulting difference won't be audible to me. In my post I simply reported (i.e. not quoted word for word) what some manufacturers are saying about the theoretical benefits. I did say I believe in the theory, by theory I meant the electrical/electromagnetic theory.
Having clarified what should have been apparent to you if you bothered to read it first before responding by saying it is "nonsense", do you still think I have the onus to explain? If so, explain what, explain why I believe in some theory, or call it claims if you prefer? I don’t know what in my post provoked you enough to turn a somewhat technical conversation into accusation. I used words like "please be reminded"; you use "This is nonsense". Your response to mtrycrafts puzzles me even more!
Regarding your question "how the back EMF differs from one amp, or two driving a passive crossover." This question need not be asked in the first place. I am not aware of anyone saying that there is a difference. What I referred to in my post was about the alleged benefits of separating out the heavy bass signal currents from the high frequency signal currents so that each will have its own path/cable. Back emf or not, the lows and highs flow in separate cables, that’s the physical difference. To save me from unintentionally misquoting anyone, you could if you wish, follow the following links to read the descriptive yourselves. You may also visit some British speaker sites e.g. B&W, KEF, among others.
http://www.vandersteen.com/pages/Answr7.htm
http://www.axiomaudio.com/tips_biwiring_and_biamping.html
Thanks!