Since many speakers, especially 2 way designs, generally have a 4-6ohm impedance In the midbass and midrange, and a good deal of real music/movie content is heavily weighted in this range, is it incorrect to assume a speaker actually needs about 1.5x the power than would otherwise be assumed based on the 2.83v sensitivity? For example, let’s say my speakers are 93dB at 2.8v, but are 4-6ohms from 100-1khz, if I wanted to achieve 95dB at 11’, if really need 30w vs 20w to account for that.
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