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Rex
07-19-2004, 02:45 PM
Can anyone tell me what the difference say between a FR of 30Hz-50kHz(-6dB) and 60Hz-20KHz(+3dB) .

Thanks Rex

gene
07-19-2004, 02:56 PM
Rex;

The latter response is with respect to tighter tolerances thus why the bandwidth is more limited. In other words from 60Hz to 20kHz the spec is within +-3dB tolerance meaning the total variance within that bandwidth cannot exceed 6dB total. The former response of 30Hz to 50kHz +-6dB means it can vary up to 12dB total within that bandwidth.

markw
07-19-2004, 03:16 PM
Actually, both specs could have concievebly been derived from the same speaker. The derivation from zero is greater at the extremes.

Rex
07-19-2004, 09:13 PM
Rex;

The latter response is with respect to tighter tolerances thus why the bandwidth is more limited. In other words from 60Hz to 20kHz the spec is within +-3dB tolerance meaning the total variance within that bandwidth cannot exceed 6dB total. The former response of 30Hz to 50kHz +-6dB means it can vary up to 12dB total within that bandwidth.

Thanks, Gene and Understood! So, does it mean between the two, one would be considered better than the other, or does it mean to the ear; it doesnt matter?

Actually, the former was a B&W spec and the latter was a RBH spec. Not sure what I can take from that.

joelincoln
07-20-2004, 01:17 PM
You can't tell from this info. These two specs "could" be from the same unit. They are not mutually exclusive.

However, if you're comparing speakers, I'd have to question why one mfg'r is spec'ing his stuff at +/- 6dB when the industry standard is +/- 3dB....