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ryan1706
04-16-2006, 04:47 PM
I know this is a stupid question but i will ask it anyways. I know when the speaker independence goes from 8 to a lower ohm or etc. the wattage from the amp goes up. Does this mean that an 8 ohm speaker at a certain volume would not be as loud as a 4 ohm speaker at the same level? More power = louder volume sometimes
OR WAS THIS A STUPID QUESTION?

MDS
04-16-2006, 05:01 PM
More power does equal more loudness, but not as much as you might think. It takes twice the power to get a 3 dB increase in loudness. 100 watts will produce 3 dB more loudness than 50 watts (10*log(100/50) = +3.01 dB). 3 dB is noticeably louder but not that much.

But to compare a 4 ohm speaker to an 8 ohm speaker, you have to compare apples to apples. - they have to have the same sensitivity. If they have the same sensitivity, then they will produce the same loudness but the 4 ohm will draw more current and the watts will be higher. V=IR but the V is constant as an amp/receiver has a fixed rail voltage, so as the R goes down from 8 to 4, the I must increase to maintain the same relationship. [Simplifying because the R actually varies with frequency].

ryan1706
04-16-2006, 05:05 PM
That explains it thanks. I did not know that.